Rick Moen suggested:
> > See the bit about even the granting of rights by an author having to
> > be explicitly specified - under French law.
>> The analysis, here and elsewhere, concerns contract law. This isn't
> contract law.
I think this may really be a question of jurisdiction - in other words,
where the law applies.
Certainly it looks like it would be a mistake under Irish, English or US
laws. But from what I know (which admittedly is very little) the French have
a very, very different legal system. Things like presumption of guilt -
innocence must be proved.
This debate is most probably entirely academic, unless people knowledgeable
about French law join in. What it really needs is a test case under French
law, but that may not be such a good thing for other reasons.
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